Many entrepreneurs focus on pre-money valuation to the detriment of other economic terms that can be equally significant in a venture financing. As you may have heard venture investors or others say before, "I'll let you pick the valuation as long as I get to pick all the other terms." This is because beyond the pre-money valuation, there are an infinite number of ways through other economic terms for the investors to extract their returns.
The pre-money valuation is used to determine the price per share that your investors will pay, but the idea that it is actually the valuation of the company instead of simply the customary method of determining a price per share in a financing is somewhat of a misnomer. A pre-money valuation of $5 million for a typical Series A deal on a $5 million venture investment really just means that the venture investor will be getting a 50% equity stake for the upside portion of its investment (after all the preferred terms have kicked in). For the company to really be worth $5 million pre-money in that scenario, the investor would be getting the exact same type of security (common stock) as what is already outstanding. The fact that your venture investors give you a pre-money valuation of $5 million certainly does not mean that you could sell the company for $5 million instead. In fact, as the 409A valuation models will show you, the common stock in such a situation is often valued at approximately 10-20% of the preferred. So the "real" pre-money value of the company in this scenario (at least in an "appraised value" sense) may be more like $500k to $1m. Add to that the fact that the unallocated option pool will generally be 10-20% and come out of the pre-money valuation and you can see that the "real" valuation could be as low as even $300k in our scenario (applying a 10% common to preferred valuation and a 20% option pool).
Other key economic terms entrepreneurs should be looking at in addition to the pre-money value include:
- Does the preferred have a participation feature? If so, is it capped?
- What is the liquidation preference? Is it more than 1x?
- What is the option pool and is it taken out of the pre-money valuation?
- What is the dividend rate and do they accrue and add to the liquidation preference?
Here are two scenarios that illustrate some of these terms. Scenario B has the higher pre-money valuation, but its pretty clear it is the less attractive offer to a startup.
Scenario A:
$5 million Series A investment
$5 million pre-money valuation
10% unallocated option pool (dilutive to pre-money)
1x liquidation preference
Non-participating preferred
No accruing dividends
Scenario B:
$5 million Series A investment
$6 million pre-money valuation
20% unallocated option pool (dilutive to pre-money)
1x liquidation preference
Participating preferred
10% accruing dividend added to liquidation preference
Right off the bat, the difference in the option pools means that the investors in Scenario B will actually pay a lower price per share and receive a larger piece of equity. In Scenario A, $1m of the combined $10m valuation is set aside for the unallocated option pool, leaving $4 million of the pre-money value for the outstanding equity of the company. In Scenario B, even though the higher pre-money valuation means a combined valuation of $11 million, $2.4 million is for the unallocated option pool, leaving $3.6 million for the outstanding equity of the company. So right off the bat, despite the higher pre-money valuation, the existing equity is 10% worse position. In our scenarios, even if all terms but the pre-money valuation and option percentage were the same, it would take a pre-money valuation of $6.667 million for the point at which Scenario B with a 20% option pool is economically equivalent to Scenario A with a 10% option pool.
I'll cover some of the other key economic terms and differences between Scenarios A and B above in future posts.